ETM Pre-Course MCQ
Please complete the MCQ prior to the first day of the course.
Course
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ETM Course Melbourne: 20-22 Feb 2026
PTM Course Melbourne: 27 Feb - 1 March 2026
ETM Course Adelaide: 16-18 March 2026
ETM Course Gold Coast: 26 March 2026
ETM Course Melbourne: 13-15 April 2026
ETM Course Sunshine Coast: 20-22 April 2026
ETM Course Newcastle: 1-3 May 2026
ETM Course Cairns: 18-20 May 2026
ETM Course Perth: 22-24 May 2026
ETM Course Brisbane: 10-12 June 2026
ETM Course Melbourne: 17-19 June 2026
PTM Course Melbourne: 26-28 June 2026
ETM Course Adelaide: 6-8 July 2026
ETM Course Sydney: 22-24 July 2026
ETM Course Cairns: 19-21 Aug 2026
ETM Course Melbourne: 26-28 Aug 2026
PTM Course Melbourne: 7-9 Sept 2026
ETM Course Perth: 21-23 Sept 2026
ETM Course Toowoomba: 30 Sept - 2 Oct 2026
ETM Course Adelaide: 17-19 Oct 2026
ETM Course Auckland: 24-26 Nov 2026
ETM Course Gold Coast: 27-29 Nov 2026
ETM Course Christchurch: 8-10 Dec 2026
ETM Course Melbourne: 11-13 Dec 2026
Name
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First Name
Last Name
Email
example@example.com
Calculation
1. Which staff members are included in a “trauma team”?
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ED Medical staff
ED Nursing Staff
Radiographer
Surgeon
All of the above
2. The ATMIST handover includes all of the following EXCEPT:
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Patient age
Mechanism of injury
The patient’s past medical history
The time of injury
Vital signs
3. Regarding the initial assessment all of the following are true EXCEPT:
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Airway assessment includes inspection of the mouth/oral cavity for blood, vomit, secretions, loose teeth or foreign bodies
Bandages and dressings applied pre-hospital must not be removed in ED
Tourniquets may be removed in ED if the wound is small and haemorrhage can be controlled with direct pressure
Clinical signs of cardiac tamponade are neither sensitive nor specific
The goal of circulation assessment and management is to find the bleeding, stop the bleeding and correct deficiencies
4. Which of the following regarding circulation assessment is TRUE:
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Capillary refill time is a reliable indicator of shock
Hypotension and tachycardia always indicate that shock is present
Large volume blood loss may occur into the retroperitoneal space
An adult femur fracture may lose up to 500ml of blood into the thigh
The FAST scan can reliably exclude all intra-abdominal haemorrhages
5. In a patient arriving in the ED with obvious signs of haemorrhagic shock, the initial resuscitation fluid of choice is:
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A 1:1:1 ratio of red blood cells - plasma - platelets
0.9% (Normal) Saline
Hartmann’s solution (Lactated Ringers
3% Saline
5% Glucose
6. In a patient with a penetrating neck wound, hard signs of vascular injury include all of the following EXCEPT:
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Active haemorrhage from the wound
Large, pulsatile haematoma
Haemoptysis
Shock
Altered conscious state
7. In traumatic cardiac arrest, after the airway has been secured, which is the next most important procedure to be carried out?
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CPR
Bilateral finger thoracostomies
Administration of 2 litres of 0.9% normal saline
Thoracotomy
Administration of adrenaline
8. With regard to traumatic tension pneumothorax, which of the following is TRUE:
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Needle decompression is a reliable method for decompression
Chest X-ray is essential for diagnosis
Intravenous access for analgesia should be obtained prior to decompression
Finger thoracostomy is the preferred method for decompression
The aim of treatment is rapid insertion of an intercostal catheter
9. Regarding pericardial tamponade, which is FALSE:
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In the arrested patient, the preferred drainage method is emergency resuscitative thoracotomy
Clinical signs of tamponade are more sensitive than ultrasound
Right ventricular injury is more common than left ventricular injury due to anatomic location
As little as 100ml of blood can cause tamponade in an adult
Chest x-ray cannot exclude the diagnosis
10. Regarding shock, which is TRUE:
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Tension pneumothorax may cause distributive shock
Cardiogenic shock is caused by pericardial tamponade
Clinical assessment of shock is highly accurate
Neurogenic shock should be suspected in the patient with hypotension and relative bradycardia
Shock in elderly patients presents the same as in younger patients
11. Sites of concealed blood loss that may result in hypovolaemic shock include all of the following EXCEPT:
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Intracranial
Intrathoracic
Intra-abdominal
Retroperitoneal
Thigh (with femur fracture)
12. Regarding traumatic brain injury:
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A contre-coup injury occurs on the same side as the initial impact
Extradural haemorrhage is the most common type of intracranial bleeding
A GCS of 12 is consistent with a minor head injury
A dilated pupil in a patient with a head injury is always due to underlying brain injury
Subdural haemorrhage is the most common type of intracranial bleeding
13. Airway management in trauma may include all of the following EXCEPT:
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Use of airway adjuncts such as oropharyngeal airways
Use of suction to clear debris from the pharynx
Application of non-invasive ventilation (CPAP/BiPAP) for supine patients in spinal precautions
Rapid sequence intubation
Use of supraglottic airway devices such as a Laryngeal Mask Airway
14. Regarding spinal trauma:
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Less than 1% of patients with a spinal fracture will have a second spinal fracture
Neurogenic shock is due to loss of sympathetic autonomic outflow and classically results in hypotension and relative bradycardia
The NEXUS criteria are 100% sensitive for ruling out cervical spine injury
Pressure ulcers rarely occur in patients left in spinal immobilisation for long periods of time
Plain x-rays can reliably exclude cervical spine fractures in adults
15. In haemodynamically stable patients with blunt abdominal trauma:
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Abdominal palpation is reliable in predicting potential underlying injuries
A digital rectal examination is reliable for excluding colonic injury
CT scan has a high negative predictive value for ruling out intra-abdominal injuries
Seatbelt bruising across the lower abdomen implies superficial injury only
FAST scans should only be performed if the patient becomes unstable
16. Regarding pelvic fracture:
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Pelvic fractures are strongly associated with other potentially life threatening injuries in other body regions
The majority of bleeding in pelvic fractures is arterial in origin
Absence of blood at the urethral meatus excludes urethral injury
Sacral fractures are rarely associated with neurologic injury
Application of an external pelvic binder is contraindicated in patients being sent for angiography
17. During the initial assessment of a major trauma patient:
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The traditional linear A-B-C-D-E approach must be strictly followed by everyone on the trauma team
Task specific role allocation allows for better team functioning
Patients should not be fully exposed prior to CT imaging
The team leader should stand at the head of the bed
A patient with a GCS of 8 or less must be immediately intubated, prior to completing the initial assessment
18. Regarding mechanism of injury:
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Kinetic energy is directly proportional to velocity
A person ejected from a vehicle is at low risk of injury
Falls from standing height are not associated with significant injury in elderly patients
Seatbelt bruising to the chest indicates significant deceleration force
Seatbelts increase the risk of injury in motor vehicle crashes
19. Elderly trauma patients:
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Present many diagnostic challenges due to co-morbidities and medication effects
Can routinely be safely discharged at night if only minor injuries are detected
Are more likely to develop an extra-dural than a subdural bleed in cases of head injury
Do not require dose adjustment of anaesthetic drugs if intubation is required
Are less prone to complications from traumatic injury than younger patients
20. Regarding thoracic trauma:
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Tracheal deviation is a reliable sign of pneumothorax
Absence of lung sliding on ultrasound can only be caused by pneumothorax
Tension pneumothorax and pericardial tamponade are the two main causes of obstructive shock in trauma
Traumatic aortic injury can be excluded on chest x-ray
An intercostal catheter does not need to be inserted once a tension pneumothorax has been relieved by needle decompression
SUBMIT
Should be Empty: