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If Physician
OBGYN
Womens Health
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found it on Twitter searching in subject area
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1. A 32‑year‑old with biopsy‑proven endometriosis has persistent moderate‑to‑severe pelvic pain despite optimized NSAIDs and a trial of combined oral contraceptives. She is not planning pregnancy in the next 2–3 years. Which option best reflects the rationale for considering an oral relugolix‑based GnRH antagonist combination at this point?
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A. It provides short‑acting analgesia without affecting hormone levels
B. It offers reversible suppression of ovarian estrogen with add‑back therapy to maintain bone health and reduce hypoestrogenic symptoms
C. It permanently induces menopause to eliminate endometriosis
D. It works only by shrinking visible lesions without affecting pain pathways
2. In routine practice, which of the following best describes the ongoing role of women’s health APPs when a patient is started on a relugolix‑based GnRH antagonist combination for endometriosis‑related pain?
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A. Prescribe the medication once and arrange follow‑up only if pain worsens
B. Provide regular follow‑up to reassess pain, review hypoestrogenic side effects, confirm adherence, and reassess whether the regimen and duration remain appropriate
C. Defer all monitoring and counseling to the gynecologic surgeon
D. Focus only on ordering imaging studies while the specialist manages treatment
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4. Did you find this to be an effective learning tool?
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5. Will you refer colleagues to similar programs from @ce_womenshealth?
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