• 1. A 58-year-old woman with relapsing MS has been clinically and radiographically stable for 6 years on a high-efficacy anti-CD20 therapy. She has developed recurrent infections and mild hypogammaglobulinemia and is interested in switching to a lower-risk oral therapy for convenience. MRI shows no gadolinium-enhancing lesions or new T2 lesions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?*
  • 2. A 28-year-old man is diagnosed with relapsing MS after presenting with two disabling relapses in 6 months and multiple gadolinium-enhancing lesions on MRI. He has no comorbidities and is highly motivated for effective disease control. What is the most appropriate treatment strategy?*
  • 3. Which of the following emerging therapies target B cells?*
  • 4. Which one of the following is not a function of BTK inhibitors?*
  • 5. Which of the following oral disease modifying therapies can cause or worsen macular edema?*
  • 6. Which of the following immunization recommendations should be considered with use of anti CD20 medications?*
  • 7. Spasticity management in MS may include:*
  • 8. What is the prevalence of cognitive impairment in clinically isolated syndrome?*
  • 9. What is the most effective form of treatment for cognitive dysfunction in people with MS?*
  • 10. Which of the following best reflects a comprehensive approach to wellness in individuals living with multiple sclerosis?*
  • 11. Which of the following is true about symptom management in persons with advanced disability from multiple sclerosis (MS)?*
  • 12. Which of the following DMTs need to be stopped in advance of trying to conceive? *
  • 13. Which of the following DMTs are not compatible with lactation?*
  • Which of the following best describes your title?
  • ***If PharmD, please provide DOB:
     - -
    2 digit month, 2 digit day, 4 digit year
  • What best describes your practice setting?
  • How many patients with MS do you treat per week?
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