USV-JSC MERT Basic Course Questions
Name
First Name
Last Name
Rank
Unit
USAVR
USMCVR
USNVR
USAFVR
USCGVR
Service
Email
example@example.com
Address
Street Address
Street Address Line 2
City
State / Province
Postal / Zip Code
Phone Number
-
Area Code
Phone Number
Date
-
Month
-
Day
Year
Date
Question1. The orderly line of authority within the ranks of the incident management organization refers to: Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Unity of Command
Chain of Command
Authority of Command
Improved Command
Question 2. Each individual has a designated supervisor to whom he or she reports at the scene of the incident means: Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Unity of Command
Chain of Command
Authority of Command
Improved Command
Question 3. The Chain of Command: Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Never changes
Changes at the same time every day.
Is a known line of authority.
Is a bottom up system.
Question 4. Three characteristics of “Leaders” in the Incident Command System are: Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Duty, Honor, Country.
Selfless service, dedication, and determination.
Being ready to go when needed, giving directions, and be prompt.
Duty, Respect, Communications.
Question 5. Which of the following is not an element of Leadership in ICS? Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Take command
Motivate Responders
Communicate cleardirections
Operate on your ownauthority.
Question 6. A single command post (ICP) and one supervisor, a single set of objectives, an understanding of joint priorities, and restrictions are elements of:
Unified Command
Specified Command
In Command
Delegated Command
Question 7. The recommended “Span of Control” is:
Unlimited
1:5
3:1
10:1
Question 8. An Incident Action Plan (IAP)Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Every incident must have an action plan.
Has specific objectives
States the activities to be completed.
All the above.
Question 9. Which Functional Area/positions carries out staff functions needed to support the incident commander? Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Deputy Commander
Organizational Staff
Command Staff
Personal Staff
Question 10. Who has the overall responsibility for the incident management?
Incident Commander
Organizational Commander
Unit Commander
Alternate Commander
Question 11. Which staff member interfaces with the public and media?
Liaison Officer
Personnel Officer
Intelligence Office
Public InformationOfficer
Question 12. The ICS General Staff includes: Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Administrative/Finance Section, Planning Section, Operations Section, and Logistics Section.
Operations section, Intelligence section, Maintenance section, and administrative section.
Planning section,Communication section, finance section.
Logistics section,organization section, and intelligence section.
Question 13. These are developed at the Federal, State, and local levels to provide a uniform response to all hazards that a community may face.
Standard Operations Plans (SOP)
Contract Action Plans(CAP)
Emergency Operations Plan (EOP)
Military Action Plan (MAP)
Question 14. An Area Command
Is an organization to over see the management of multiple incidents handled individually by separate ICS organizations.
Is not a part of ICS.
Is an organization that supports a single incident.
Is always activated.
Question 15. National Incident Management System (NIMS) includes:
Command and Management
Preparedness
Resource Management
All the above
Question 16. Briefings
Are conducted at the beginning of each operational period.
Presents the Incident Action Plan for the upcoming period.
Should be concise.
All the above
Question 17. Which of the following is not an element of briefings?
Current Situation and Objectives.
Long detailed discussions on section issues.
Work Tasks
Performance Expectations
Work Schedules
Question 18. USV will be asked by OSHSA, the Federal Government to perform a variety of duties in support of a Federal disaster.
True
False
Question 19. Before FEMA, a key law passed was the Beauford Act 1988 in relation to disaster assistance.
True
False
Question 20. Third responders fill sandbags and or fight fires and arrive first on sight of the disaster.
True
False
Question 21. All USV volunteers will be involved in search and rescue as part of their mission.
True
False
Question 22. Inconsideration of safety for USV the following examples are signs of danger: Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Gas leak.
Downed electrical wires.
Chemical spills.
All the above.
None of the above.
Question 23. It is safe to enter heavily damaged buildings which are only partially or totally collapsed when working as a search and teams.
True
False
Question 24. The first life saving step of the 7 steps is to treat the emergency?
True
False
Question 25. Shock is defined as a loss of enough blood that it affects the patient mental status and vital signs.
True
False
Question 26. We do not treat patients who have been placed in the Expectant Category.
True
False
Question 27. DIME “mnemonic” stands for the 4 categories used to triage multiple causalities.
True
False
Question 28. Head tilt or chin lift are methods to treat airway obstruction of the airway 2nd to the tongue moving (falling) backward.
True
False
Question 29. This is the order of treatment: Massive Bleeding (arterial), Airway tubes, Breathing or Lung, Circulation or moderate bleeding. We treat in this order to mitigate the injury that will "kill" the patient 1st!
True
False
Question 30. When you have placed a tourniquet on a patient, you cannot remove it for any reason?
True
False
Question 31. In MABC the "C" stands for Circulation or moderate bleeding. We treat massive bleeding with a tourniquet and moderate bleeding with large gauze combat dressing.
True
False
Question 32. Who may benefit for CPR-AED? Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Only old people.
Only young athletes.
Only those who have been shocked by electricity.
Anyone who has severely compromised heart or lung capacity.
Question 33. In addition to providing a practical working knowledge of CPR-AED this presentation will: Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Make you an expert in CPR-AED
Qualify you for a CPR card.
You may need this training at some time in your private life.
All the above.
Question 34. When the AED arrives: Choose the correct or best answer (s)
You move the patient to a new location.
You wait for directions from a medical professional.
You plug the machine into an electrical outlet.
You open the AED up and turn the machine on. The machine will talk to you and tell you what to do next.
Question 35. One man carries are: Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Fireman.
Pack strap.
Support.
Neck.
Drop.
Question 36. Drop and drag: Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Used to move a patient out of a building or a vehicle.
Can drag someone heavier than you.
Patient must be conscious.
Can move Short distance before tiring.
Hands are not free.
Question 37. Two man carries: Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Support
Fore-Arm Carry
2 Hand Seat Carry
Back-handed Carry
Scoop & Go Carry
Question 38. 4 Manor Litter Carry: Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Tell the casualty what you are going to do in order to calm his fears and get his cooperation.
Walk around the casualty rather than stepping over him.
Have one person give instructions so actions will be performed in unison.
Avoid causing additional injury to the casualty when placing him on the litter and moving the casualty.
Question 39. Heart Attack or MI Myocardial Infarction is when the heart does not get enough blood and dies.
True
False
Question 40. The 2 most common reason for a Stroke/CVA area rupture of an artery (bleed) and blockage from a blood clot (called anemboli).
True
False
Question 41. CVA Symptoms: Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Lack of understanding(confused).
Facial dropping or numbness.
Difficult or slurred speech.
Chest pain and or left arm weakness.
Weakness or numbness offace arm or leg (usually one sided).
Question 42. 2nd degree Burn is a Partial-thickness epidermis part dermis Red/Blister moist painful peel no scar heal 4 days.
True
False
Question 43. Rule of “7s” is a way to predict the amount of skin that is burnt.
True
False
Question 44. Diagnosing a Fracture: Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Extensive discoloration. (indicates bleeding)
Areas of tenderness when touched.
Swelling.
Patient complains of pain.
Patient cannot or won’t use the body part.
Question 45. The patient is not complaining and there are no visible signs of fracture. But there was enough force and you suspect a fracture? You should treat as if there is a fracture?
True
False
Question 46. Heat Cramps Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Symptom is cramps of muscle.
Cause is a loss of salt& water.
You can lose salt in your sweat or urine.
Loss of Salt (Sodium Chloride) will lead to your muscle not working properly.
Treatment is salt and water replacement.
Question 47. There are 3 types of injuries that can happen because of excessive COLD and or water exposure. Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Trench Leg.
Cold Bite.
Hypothermia.
Question 48. PPE stands for Personal Protective Environment. Working in an Incidents or disaster environment exposes the volunteer to many types of dangers. Exposure to adverse environment is mitigated by use of PPE. Usually this is through physical barrier to the offending agent.
True
False
Question 49. Four main psychological “mental” symptoms: Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Fear.
Isolation or withdrawal
Losing your car in the parking lot.
Anger.
Feeling helpless or overwhelmed.
Question 50. To stabilize the incident scene by stabilizing the individual survivor, it is best to: Choose the correct or best answer (s)
Engage survivors in activities.
Listen to survivors about feelings.
Empathize.
Go on a date with a survivor.
All the above.
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